I have accused the Fathers of changing the ekklēsia by going to the old covenant (and paganism), but is it not true to say that the New Testament uses old-covenant language? It certainly is! But the question is, of course, how does it use that language? Think of 'temple', 'priest', 'sacrifice', 'sabbath', 'circumcision', 'redemption', 'law', and so on. The New Testament uses all these terms, but, when referring to the new covenant, it uses them in a new-covenant sense. The very newness of the new covenant demands it!1 Of course it does! Christ has fulfilled the old covenant, rendering it obsolete (Heb. 7:19,22; 8:13), so that the shadows of the old covenant have all given way to the reality in Christ (Col. 2:17; Heb. 8:5; 10:1).2 Clearly, therefore, while, when referring to the old covenant, the New Testament uses old-covenant language and terms in an oldcovenant sense, when referring to the new covenant, it uses that same language in a new-covenant, spiritual sense. This distinction, this nuance, must be maintained at all times. |